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    unniyettan's Avatar
    unniyettan Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
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    Jul 28, 2014, 02:16 AM
    how does velocity gradient becomes zero according to the continuity equation in fm?
    is it logical that velocity gradient is to become zero for one dimensional steady state flow of incompressible fluids.if yes what about if the fluid particle is accelarating,does it not flow continuity?
    ebaines's Avatar
    ebaines Posts: 12,131, Reputation: 1307
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    Jul 28, 2014, 05:33 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by unniyettan
    is it logical that velocity gradient is to become zero for one dimensional steady state flow of incompressible fluids.
    Sure, why not? Velocity gradient = fluid acceleration = 0 at that point.

    Quote Originally Posted by unniyettan
    if yes what about if the fluid particle is accelarating,does it not flow continuity?
    If velocity gradient = 0 and a single particle is accelerating that would mean that another particle must be decelerating; but then it wouldn't be 1-dimensional incompressible fluid flow. So I don't see how this could happen. Please clarify what you maen by thiis: "does it not flow continuity?"
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