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    faalguni's Avatar
    faalguni Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Nov 24, 2012, 11:29 PM
    Law of contract
    A faxed to B on 5th July: Would you like to buy my luxury car? I have in my mind a price of Rs.6 lakhs and prompt delivery is assured. Expecting to hear from you.
    B wrote back immediately: I accept your terms: I expect the delivery by the end of the month so that I may use it during my August vacation


    B posted the letter immediately and in normal course, the letter would have reached A latest by 10th July. But the letter somehow was delayed and reached a only on 17th July. Meanwhile, on 15th July, A thinking that B was not interested, sold car to C. By 20th July, B approached A with money. When A express his helplessness, filed a suit against A.
    Fr_Chuck's Avatar
    Fr_Chuck Posts: 81,301, Reputation: 7692
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    #2

    Nov 25, 2012, 02:32 AM
    Thank you for posting your home work,

    Of course the law varies as to where this is, American law, if so actually what state will make a difference.

    Most likely this is home work. So you tell us what you think and we will give you opinions of the answer
    faalguni's Avatar
    faalguni Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
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    #3

    Nov 25, 2012, 02:55 AM
    Well, the state here in question is India where we still follow British Law.
    I have 2 possibilities in mind
    1. Since the offeror A has not mentioned the mode of acceptance, postal law can not be applied and hence its not a valid contract since the post was never actually received by A

    2. the postal address was known to B, hence it was an implied mode of acceptance and hence postal law can be applied and hence it is a valid contract and the case is breach of contract
    AK lawyer's Avatar
    AK lawyer Posts: 12,592, Reputation: 977
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    #4

    Nov 26, 2012, 05:37 PM
    3. A chose the appropriate means of communication: fax. Therefor B should have used fax transmission to communicate acceptance. Since B did not within a reasonable period, B looses.
    Fr_Chuck's Avatar
    Fr_Chuck Posts: 81,301, Reputation: 7692
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    #5

    Nov 27, 2012, 02:50 AM
    Yes unless the offer was not received, so not valid

    Plus under common law there was no payment made to bind a contract
    faalguni's Avatar
    faalguni Posts: 3, Reputation: 1
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    #6

    Nov 27, 2012, 09:12 AM
    Thank You
    AK lawyer's Avatar
    AK lawyer Posts: 12,592, Reputation: 977
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    #7

    Nov 27, 2012, 10:42 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by Fr_Chuck
    ... Plus under common law there was no payment made to bind a contract
    Payment is not necessary under the common law. Consideration (i.e.: a promise to pay) is all that's necessary; and acceptance can (but in this case doesn't) constitute consideration.

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