[Jujube1177]

Hello, I'm a 34 y/o F. About 1 year ago I rolled my ankle while wearing high heels and fractured it. I wore a boot for 6 weeks and did physical
therapy. But, it felt as if it never healed and was becoming painful with visible swelling. Dr sent me for X-rays and the report stated:

IMPRESSION: Focal area of decreased attenuation with associated
narrowing of the lateral malleolar joint. This may represent an area of
bone remodeling from inflammation or prior trauma. No specific evidence
of underlying aggressive bone lesion is present.

So then I'm told to see an Orthopaedic surgeon. I go for a MRI and those results are:

IMPRESSION:
Minimal posterolateral talar dome osteoarthrosis without any evidence of
osteochondritis dissecans.
Posterolateral lateral malleolar marrow edema and suggestion of healing
nondisplaced fracture.

So a new surgeon foot and ankle specialist is NOW sending me for a CAT scan. What does all of this mean? They are telling me surgery is necessary but I don't get what is really wrong.