[pslflcb]

I was hired as a salaried employee, based on 40 hrs per week; no contract signed, just a verbal agreement. During July and Aug this year I'm being cut to 20 hrs per week at an hourly pay rate of $6.00 per hr less than my "salary" rate. Then in Sept I'm being bumped back up to 40 hrs per week, at the salary rate. However during 6 months of the year, when I'm on "salary", I actually work 43 hrs per week, but my check only shows payment based on 40 hrs. Can an employer legally do this sort of thing?

[JudyKayTee]

Where? Union or contract?

[ballengerb1]

Is your lunch and break part of that 43 hours?

[AK lawyer]

... Union or contract?

I believe OP answered that question before you asked it: "no contract signed, just a verbal agreement."

Unless the verbal agreement had some sort of tenure provision ("I won't lay you off without good cause" or "if I have to lay you off or reduce your hours, I will give you a severance package", I don't believe OP has much of a case. The employer could just let OP go, and then, if he or she chose, re-hire him/her at the reduced hours per week and reduced wage rate.

[JudyKayTee]

I believe OP answered that question before you asked it: "no contract signed, just a verbal agreement."

Unless the verbal agreement had some sort of tenure provision ("I won't lay you off without good cause" or "if I have to lay you off or reduce your hours, I will give you a severance package", I don't believe OP has much of a case. The employer could just let OP go, and then, if he or she chose, re-hire him/her at the reduced hours per week and reduced wage rate.

- And so he did.