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    Toto_toto's Avatar
    Toto_toto Posts: 2, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Nov 28, 2010, 10:55 AM
    Kant
    [B]What are kant's reasons for saying that the only thing that can be good without qualification is a good will? What is it to have good will? What is it to ACT FROM duty according to Kant?
    TUT317's Avatar
    TUT317 Posts: 657, Reputation: 76
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    #2

    Nov 28, 2010, 02:12 PM
    Quote Originally Posted by Toto_toto View Post
    [B]What are kant's reasons for saying that the only thing that can be good without qualification is a good will? What is it to have good will? What is it to ACT FROM duty according to Kant?

    Kant distinguishes between hypothetical imperative and categorical imperative. A hypothetical imperative is a directive towards a certain end. For example, if you wish to be healthy then you OUGHT to exercise. Hypothetical imperative is simply acting prudently at the time. In other words, exercising is a good idea but perhaps you can obtain good health through diet.

    According to Kant hypothetical imperatives are not acts attributed to morality.. For example, if I wish to get from point A to point B in the least possible time then it is prudent of me to drive in a fast and dangerous manner.

    Morality for Kant is bound up in duty and obligations towards others. Unlike a hypothetical imperative, a categorical imperative is not something we do in order to a achieve an end. Eg Arrive at point B in the shortest possible time. A categorical imperative is an end in itself.

    Kant believes nothing can be conceived in this world which can be called good without qualification except a good will. Again, a person has a good will when they act from a sense of duty and obligation. There is no reward waiting for them upon completion.

    Kant formulates the categorical imperative in several different ways, but there is really only one categorical imperative, namely this: act only in a way that you would want your actions to become a universal law. By universal law Kant means- If you want to speed from point A to point B ask yourself this question. Should I will that speeding become a universal law? In other words, if I think it is right to speed then I should be happy if everyone were to speed. This answer is probably no because more people would be killed on the road and there is a chance that you could become one of them. So no, most rational people would not will this to be a universal law.

    On this basis one reason for me not speeding is that I am acting from a sense of duty and obligation towards others.The act of not speeding on my part is without qualification. I do it without out regard to some benefit I will receive. It lays down a rule I impose upon myself for the benefit of me behaving morally. It is an example of virtue ethics.


    Regards
    Tut

    I am in a bit of a rush this morning. If there are any problems with my post let me know.

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