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    10Ginger's Avatar
    10Ginger Posts: 2, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Nov 8, 2006, 11:54 AM
    Proof
    Can someone help me to prove that: if q1 q2 is rational, then q1 and q2 is rational.
    kyop's Avatar
    kyop Posts: 48, Reputation: 11
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    #2

    Nov 16, 2006, 10:36 PM
    Quote Originally Posted by 10Ginger
    Can someone help me to prove that: if q1 q2 is rational, then q1 and q2 is rational.
    I'd love to... however it's not the case.

    12 is a rational number (Z is a subset of Q)

    I can come up with infinite q1 and q2 to where q1*q2 = 12 but are not rational.

    Here's one:

    q1 = sqrt(72) q2 = sqrt(2)

    You will notice that q1q2 is rational but neither q1 or q2 are rational.

    Or did I misread the question?
    10Ginger's Avatar
    10Ginger Posts: 2, Reputation: 1
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    #3

    Nov 17, 2006, 06:19 AM
    Thank you kyop, I think the statement is false, I can only prove it in inverse statement.
    kyop's Avatar
    kyop Posts: 48, Reputation: 11
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    #4

    Nov 17, 2006, 06:51 AM
    Yes, the inverse is definitely true. That can easily be shown using the definition of rationals and the closure property.

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