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Type: Posts; User: Blackkdark
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Yeah, but that's because Turkish is an Agglutinative language, but it also follows rules of vowel harmony. It might sound complicated, but I think 'tis relatively simple. Other agglutinative...
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In practical Modern English, there is no difference between Shall and Will. The major one is that more people use WILL more often. Historically, Will implied that there would be some sort of want...
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That is a joke. For one, I know it´s Thou Shalt. I´m also pretty sure it´s She Shall, since it´s a modal verb and has a weird conjugation. Most of them have the same in the first and third...
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Yeah, but I was talking about the present tense. Even in Old English, the past tense endings are never -th. Was is the past tense, it was wæs is almost every dialect. In a few, if it retained the...
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Wath? There should not have been a wath. It's not in the dictionary, not even under archaic. And what do you mean by " bill " in reform? Lots of things changed and formed over time, through...
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It depends more of when it was written, mostly. Wast was used initially in the 1500s because of analogy. It basically was imitating the first and second person was. Wert was reinterpreted later ...
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Lol, it's not l-less, it just CAN drop /l/ at the end of a syllable. It's actually fairly common. That's why some people think Law and Mall rhyme, or mall and maw are homophones. It's just the...
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Nah, Norman French was actually known for its Germanic pronunciation, and Old French was very phonetic, unlike Modern French. Like I said, I don't think that they are not pronouncing the /l/, but...
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Okay, yeah, those look find for the present tense of the verb "to have" there's I have, thou hast, she/he/it hath/has. Has was used since before Shakespeare, but if you want it to sound archaic,...
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Well, it would be, Thou wert, which is archaic, yes. She was is still she was, and it's been that way since the Old English era. The -th ending was a descendant of Old English -ð/-þ which was only...
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Well, Look is not a strong verb, and doesn't have I-umlaut. I would vote for Looketh, since that's closer to the historical forms, but the other one is possible and likely, since the -e- is likely...
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Yeah, but Turkish has 20 declensions. Russian has 8. The verbs are more complex in both languages, just in different ways.
Dialects don't make languages hard, just normal. If you look at it...
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It's only hard for you, because you don't speak any of them, Dolly. Russian is actually fairly easy compared to Finnish or Turkish, or Basque. Especially since the latter has no relatives, meaning...
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that question kind of doesn't make sense, since archaic really means it's not in use, only heard occasionally usually as a joke or in a mocking way.
An example would be "methinks" which is a very...
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Yeah, Ye is not accusative. It's in fact nominative. It's origin is ge, which was nominative, and the accusative and dative of which was eow, which is where "you" comes from.
That first...
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Yes, but if you were to speak to the everyday English-speaker it'd sound very archaic. But it's common in Shakespeare and evenmore in Chaucer's times.
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Nope, I'm not involved with that site.
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Well, I think you misunderstood me. I'm not saying there's no logic in language, I'm saying there's not a logical language, HUGE difference. Logic itself is supposed to be this highly ordered...
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You don't have to be a professional linguist to study languages. I'm a student, yes, of both Linguistics and Anthropology, as well as English history. Though I am near the end of my college career....
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That's true, you probably should have, no offense.
Yes, High German would be more formal in some respects than Low. The word thou originally was þu, which was later þou, then thou. þu is a direct...
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Well, if you look at that in the case, look at French, whose number 80 is literally four-twenties, or 70 which is sixty-ten, or the worst 90, which is four-twenties-ten. Then you would say 91 as...
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Tonal languages aren't really that difficult. They often trade off grammatical endings with Tones, such as Mandarin which has no inflectional endings, just participles. The problem is that when you...
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Wow, okay, I know you're heart is in the right place, but you need to do a bit more research.
You're not wrong, but you're not right, as funny as that sounds.
Yes, Ye has it's origins in Old...
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What? Jointed? What web page?
In the Early Modern way of speaking? I can recommend READING Shakespeare, he's the one whom we have the most texts in the Early Modern period. There are others, but...
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Like I said, I don't really do much for Sanskrit save in comparison to the other Indo-European languages. But I am sure that it varies in pronunciation and spelling like every other ancient language,...
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I'm not sure if I agree by the wording, but I also don't think it ultimately matters. The argument against both is simple, that if there is a difference in pronunciation, than Ms. and Mrs. still...
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Well, yes. Master in Modern English has several meanings. If say a person becomes an expert, than he is a master, so a Master magician, or logician, or blacksmith (even expressions like...
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Unless you mean about Mister and Master not having the same development as Mistress to Miss, Ms. and Mrs. If that's the case, it's probably an older development. Most Indo-European languages have a...
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I'd be happy to give a different answer, but I don't see where I misread (I'm assuming) her.
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Yeah, you see Nominative case. That's Old English. You asked for Modern English. I can give you all the personal pronouns for All Eras of English, but ye was not really common in the Modern era. ...
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Okay, well, I'll just do the whole bit, cause you mixed up one of 'em:
I - me
Thou - thee
He - him
She - her
It - it
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Well, I wouldn't say that the development of Ms. was to say if a woman was spoken for or not. Actually, quite the opposite, I would figure it to be something that arose out of a feminist ideal, the...
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HelpinHere,
Well I did already answer it earlier, but it´s always good to have more sources to back me up. No worries.
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Haha, well, Miss and Ms. have the same root, it's more of a political correct form that developed later. In fact both Miss and Mrs. also come from the same root: Mistress. It was a culture shift. ...
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Well, British RP has various degrees, and it could be a combination of your original accent with the RP, but it might be a lot of things.
In the states, we usually have an association with the...
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Actually, the term linguists use today is African American Variety of English, or Have. The name of this "dialect" has been changed several times over the last century or so.
Yes, there are...
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Okay, first of all. Patrick doesn't come from Patria.
Patrick comes from the Latin word Patricus, meaning Nobleman. In turn it's also related to the Latin (and indo-European root) Pater, meaning...
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Well, generally speaking, if you talk to a woman formally like that, you would us "ma'am" or "miss" (if they're younger) and you may hear the French term "madame" and more bluntly "lady."
And...
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My name is T. Patrick Snyder. You can call me Patrick.
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It's not just in England, it's actually throughout the English language. People in America vary those two often in names. Outside of names there isn't much variation except in so-called "slang"...
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Yeah, Definitely. That's how the whole genre of folk etymology came about. It's fine to read the rumors, but you should definitely find something's that back them up. I heard a similar thing with...
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Well, I don't have a King James Bible. I can tell you what era it's written in, it's written in the Early Modern English Era, similar to Shakespeare. It was written after the Great Vowel Shift,...
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OKAY, SIMON, no. SO very much no.
Does not come from there. In fact that's something we historical linguists call "Folk" etymology. Someone comes up with a legend and that gets passed one. ...
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Um, I don't know what you mean by Shell. I'm not sure if you mean she'll, shell, or SHALL. The latter is the most likely case so I'll just go with that one.
Shall comes from Old English sculan,...
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Latin. For many reasons. One, it is the most widely used alphabet in the world. Two, because our language actually was once phonetic. It's actually not the Latin alphabet's fault, it's the sound...
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The reason why is to make it distinct from the roman numeral I. In Old English the word was ic, and in Middle English it was ik, iche, ich, y, and I. This source can help explain the reason more:...
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William Caxton was the first and major printer in the English Language. He favoured Chaucerian works, and that's why the Chaucerian spelling became rather standard as well as the Midlands dialect.
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You might want to join this website. CONJUGUEMOS: Learn Spanish (and French, German, Latin, and Spanish) the fast and fun way
You can put together lists of verbs in Latin and practice them. As in...
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HAHA, no. Neither of those are. Basque is harder than them both combined and doubled. There are some Mayan languages that have a crazy number of sounds and suffixes. Finnish has more inflections...
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Piano, guitar, bass, banjo, mandolin, ukulele, tin whistle. I also know music theory and can sing.
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