From the website this looks to be a common situation lately. I rent a house in California that is in foreclosure and is going up for "TTEE SALE" on 5/13/08. I don't have a written lease because one was never provided to me. We entered into an oral agreement with a written lease to follow but never was provided one. The landlord is demanding for me to pay the rent or he is going to give us a 30-day notice to get out. I don't know if he has any legal rights if the house isn't his anymore. The house is set to sell for a high amount so I doubt anybody will buy it on the 13th. Will the bank own the house if it doesn't sell on the 13th, if so then I shouldn't pay the rent?? I don't want to be immoral but I believe the owner is just trying to convince me that he is going to save the house and continue to give him money.