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Blossom32 · Jul 24, 2010, 03:06 PM

Same boat but I live in Colorado. I looked on Renter's Rights but there is no concrete information regarding this issue.
I have emailed my landlord a 30day notice and she stated in email "the old term commencing July 1, 2009 and ending July 1, 2010 converting to a
month to month tenancy still with a 60 day notice to vacate in the contract." this was never stated more was it "understood" that this is normal after a year contract ends. She's claiming in Colorado, on a year contact it is 60- day notice and a 6 month lease it's 30day notice.
I don't understand how either would apply if I am month to month?

ScottGem · Jul 24, 2010, 03:21 PM

First its not a good idea to piggyback your question on someone else's. This can lead to confusion. You should start a new thread. So I've moved your question to its own thread

You need to read your original lease. It appears she is saying that the original lease stated 60 days. If that's the case, then 60 days IS required. When a term tenancy converts to a periodic tenancy, all terms of the lease remain in effect except for the lease expiration and rental amount. So the 60 day requirement remains in effect.

If the lease does not specify a notice period, then CO law takes effect. Unfortunately CO law is even worse for you:
Colorado Termination of Lease for Periodic Tenancy Law - Lease - Landlord Tenant
Since your tenancy has existed for more than one year, a 3 month notice period is required. Notice it says 3 months, not 90 days. Which means you have to give a notice of three calendar months.

Blossom32 · Jul 24, 2010, 03:40 PM

I wasn't sure how to (first time asking a question on the Internet). Thank you for both making a new thread and leading me to some concrete information. It was extremely helpful and now I'll know where to find it. Again, thank you.