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sarayui · Jun 25, 2009, 11:58 PM

Hi,

I have a quick question.

What does this sentence mean?

"The emloyee further agrees that the payment of his/her last salary owed by the company may be withheld in full satisfaction of this agreement for any monies owed."

By any monies owed to employee by the company? Or to the company by employee for violating the agreement?

Please help.

Thanks

Clough · Jun 26, 2009, 12:57 AM

Hi, sarayui!

I interpret that statement to mean that, if upon termination of employment of the employee, that if there are any outstanding monies owed to the company for whatever reason, those monies may be withheld (deducted) from the last pay check to satisfy paying any money that is owed to the company by the employee.

What is the agreement, please? It would be helpful to know that.

Hopefully, others will also come along to address your question.

Thanks!

stevetcg · Jun 26, 2009, 04:29 AM

That's how I read it to. Basically says "give back your laptop or we deduct the cost of it from your last paycheck"

twinkiedooter · Jun 26, 2009, 10:44 AM

It essentially means that the employer is going to do an audit of any materials given to the employee that have not been returned to the company and then taking the cost of those materials not returned out of the final paycheck to the employee.

Pretty boiler plate stuff that is standard in most company's policies these days as a lot of employees decide to "keep" whatever stuff that was given to them such as a cell phone or a laptop computer.

sarayui · Jun 26, 2009, 02:14 PM

Originally Posted by Clough

Hi, sarayui!

I interpret that statement to mean that, if upon termination of employment of the employee, that if there are any outstanding monies owed to the company for whatever reason, those monies may be withheld (deducted) from the last pay check to satisfy paying any money that is owed to the company by the employee.

What is the agreement, please? It would be helpful to know that.

Hopefully, others will also come along to address your question.

Thanks!

Thank you for the response.

It is a bonding agreement between employer and employee. They are sending employee to work abroad and bring knowledge back. When employee comes back, she has to work with a company for one year. If she decides to leave before completing one year (bonding period) she has to pay back all the cost occurred ( air tickets , hotel, food) and its about $50,000. So, we are not really sure what does "in full satisfaction" mean? Does it mean that if they withheld the last pay check, lets say $4,000 they will be fully satisfied and will not ask to pay the rest: 50,000 - 4,000 = 46,000.

Thanks again.

stevetcg · Jun 26, 2009, 02:23 PM

I would speak with a lawyer about this. It might be just the last paycheck. It might also be the full amount.

But I got to be honest, I'm not a lawyer, but something sounds wrong about the deal. It rings a lot of indentured servitude.

Segismundo · Jun 26, 2009, 10:39 PM

My son worked for a well known corporation. When he was hired he was asked to sign an agreement whereby he agreed to work for a period of one year after 90 days of training. If he left the company after he was trained and before completing the agreed upon term of employment , he was required to reimbursed he company for a prorata value of the cost of the training. Normally this cost is spelled out in the agreement. This is standard language. Companies don't want to invest monies training someone and having that person quit before they complete a certain amount of time working for the company. This is matter of contract and whatever the contract says goes. Some may argue that this is a contract of adhesion but once you sign it you are stuck with it.