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    lkk's Avatar
    lkk Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
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    #1

    Feb 12, 2008, 04:56 PM
    HIPAA Law and Implied (Verbal) Consent
    If someone comes in requesting you to send information to someone else and you don't have the patient sign a written consent is this against HIPAA policy, especially if what you sent was only generalities and no medical specifics? It was only done to give the patient more time to accomplish something. I was considered in violation of HIPAA rules because I did not get a written consent and ASSUMED his verbal was adequate. Thanks
    JudyKayTee's Avatar
    JudyKayTee Posts: 46,503, Reputation: 4600
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    #2

    Feb 12, 2008, 05:55 PM
    Quote Originally Posted by lkk
    If someone comes in requesting you to send information to someone else and you don't have the patient sign a written consent is this against HIPAA policy, especially if what you sent was only generalities and no medical specifics? It was only done to give the patient more time to accomplish something. I was considered in violation of HIPAA rules because I did not get a written consent and ASSUMED his verbal was adequate. Thanks

    Yes, it's contrary to HIPAA which specifically requires a signed consent. That way there is no misunderstanding concerning what was requested. HIPAA is all about paperwork and a paper trail.
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