This is a "reverse" type of question regarding how long Vicodin® and/or Hydrocodone remains in the system. 3 months ago I was prescribed Vicodin, they had me sign a form that I wasn't going to sell or abuse it, simple enough right? Well, no... the last time I was there I had to give a urine specimen (assumed it was to make sure I was taking it, and not too much of it). I just got back from my doctor and was told my urine was "clean" last time, doc did give me a new script and insisted I had been taking it. Last visit I took a pill the morning of my visit. The last time I ever sold a drug was when I was 18-20 (about) I am 46, and I am sure I could find someone to buy my "wares", however that isn't even remotely the case. So, after that long winded min-bio I am asking this; What would cause my urine to come up clean when it wasn't? The only reason I could think of was "user error" of test. I insisted my doc send it out or have a more "thorough" test done. When I go back in a month and if it comes up clean, I can't argue and "talk her into" breaking the law. I am considering video taping the ingesting of the meds and time-stamping them, a little extreme but so it the pain!

Thanks,
Tony

Let me see if I have this right, okay... You hadn't been taking for a while and then you took one the morning before your urine test.

Is this right so far?

No, I had been taking the meds throughout the month mostly as prescribed (up to 3 per day). The day prior I probably took 1-1/2 - 2 pills. You are correct though that I did take a one the morning of my follow up appt. where I did give the specimen, which is the one I learned today was "clean". Other than the test was botched, the only other issue I can think of could have been the interactions the other meds (prevacid and flomax) which I am also taking.

Thanks for the quick response,
Tony