aravella
May 2, 2007, 11:52 AM
This is a "reverse" type of question regarding how long Vicodin® and/or Hydrocodone remains in the system. 3 months ago I was prescribed Vicodin, they had me sign a form that I wasn't going to sell or abuse it, simple enough right? Well, no... the last time I was there I had to give a urine specimen (assumed it was to make sure I was taking it, and not too much of it). I just got back from my doctor and was told my urine was "clean" last time, doc did give me a new script and insisted I had been taking it. Last visit I took a pill the morning of my visit. The last time I ever sold a drug was when I was 18-20 (about) I am 46, and I am sure I could find someone to buy my "wares", however that isn't even remotely the case. So, after that long winded min-bio I am asking this; What would cause my urine to come up clean when it wasn't? The only reason I could think of was "user error" of test. I insisted my doc send it out or have a more "thorough" test done. When I go back in a month and if it comes up clean, I can't argue and "talk her into" breaking the law. I am considering video taping the ingesting of the meds and time-stamping them, a little extreme but so it the pain!
Thanks,
Tony
Thanks,
Tony