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    Rennie's Avatar
    Rennie Posts: 11, Reputation: 1
    New Member

    Aug 14, 2007, 05:18 AM
    I bought land in 1982 for $1,200,000. In 2004 the land was appraised at $ 1,795,000. The land would appear on the books in 2004 at??

    Would it be the Appraised amount the purchase amount?
    1,795,000-1,2000,000 = $595,000

    Would it just be the Appraised amount??
    Which is 1,795,000
    CaptainRich's Avatar
    CaptainRich Posts: 4,487, Reputation: 537
    Cars & Trucks Expert

    Aug 14, 2007, 05:43 AM
    Quote Originally Posted by Rennie
    the land was appraised at $ 1,795,000.
    I think you have your answer, already.
    CaptainForest's Avatar
    CaptainForest Posts: 3,645, Reputation: 393
    Ultra Member

    Aug 14, 2007, 07:53 PM
    You keep the land on the book for what you paid for it... therefore it should remain at its 1982 purchase price of 1,200,000
    bhet's Avatar
    bhet Posts: 77, Reputation: 9
    Junior Member

    Aug 16, 2007, 07:26 AM
    the land should be valued at its appraised value to update its present book value. It is the only property that doesn't depreciate but rather appreciate.
    lestola's Avatar
    lestola Posts: 1, Reputation: 1
    New Member

    Aug 17, 2007, 06:38 AM
    Under GAAP (generally accepted accounting principles,) in most cases the land should be booked at historical cost. The only exception that I'm aware of is for personal financial statements. On these statements you can use the actual (appraised) value. On the books of any other entity the land should be at cost.

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