I thought that signing the house over would be the main sticking point - would a court not just consider that he gave the house to her as a "gift" or that he should have known what he was doing so its his own fault she took his money? I only ask because it will cost a few hundred quid to take this to court and there'd be no point if this is the view they might take.... What do you think? Is it an open and shut case because of this stupid action on his part?