[kl-smith]

The more direct a force is to an object will the object move farther

[bones252100]

Have you ever played pool or billiards? Think of the cue ball striking the target ball dead center or to one side to cause the target ball to deflect in the opposite direction. Where is the energy expended in both cases? That answer is the answer to your question.

[Perito]

The more direct a force is to an object will the object move farther

Force equals the mass (of the object) times the acceleration (of the object). If you apply more force, the acceleration will be greater. With greater acceleration comes greater velocity. Greater velocity overcomes frictional forces better. Hance, the object moves farther.

[Zazonker]

I'm a bit confused about the wording of the question. Can you explain what you mean by "more direct". I'll stick my neck out and say we're talking about a given object, so mass is a constant for purposes of the problem. Then if we say we have a force of fixed magnitude, say 1 newton, what are we changing to implement the "more direct" concept. Is it the situation suggested by bones, in which "more direct" could be paraphrazed such that "most direct" would mean the direction of the application of the force is directly towards the center of gravity of the object, meaning any direction other than that is less direct?

It seems to me that this is what you probably mean. As such, Perito has provided the equation for you (which I'd hope you already knew), but given the 1 newton force, the actual force applied to the object would be less as the direction of the application of the force offsets from a vector directly through the center of gravity. For the more direct concept then, I'd say consider an offset of 60 degrees vs an offset of 30 degrees. The lessor offset would be "more direct" and a greater part of the 1 newton force would be applied to the object. As Perito said, more force, more acceleration.