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New Member
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May 2, 2009, 11:01 AM
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Married out of country. Can I divorce in U.S?
I married someone outside of the country, can I divorce him here without needing him to sign any papers?
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Full Member
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May 2, 2009, 11:18 AM
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No a marriage contract is between 2 people.
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Ultra Member
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May 2, 2009, 12:17 PM
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Originally Posted by itsbluu80
I married someone outside of the country, can I divorce him here without needing him to sign any papers?
Yes. You can always get a divorce in the US as long as one of you meets the state's residency requirements (which vary from state-to-state). It only takes one of you to meet the residency requirements--not both.
It makes no difference where in the world you were married.
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Expert
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May 2, 2009, 02:42 PM
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In divorce it is very possible that you may never find the one person, you have have them served with divorce papers but they refuse to show up for court.
So yes a lots of divorces happen without one party signing
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Uber Member
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May 8, 2009, 05:15 AM
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[QUOTE=Comments on this post
Sunflowers agrees: without needing him to sign any papers?[/QUOTE]
Yes, it's called a default divorce and it happens very regularly all over the Country. People don't appear for one reason or another.
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Full Member
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May 8, 2009, 07:43 AM
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Itsbluu80,
There is a process for divorce by default. It is not ideal and is (sometimes) easily overturned if and when the ex shows up. A default divorce can proceed once you have sent proper notification to your partner of your intent and he does not respond within the legal timeframe. Good luck.
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Uber Member
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May 8, 2009, 12:34 PM
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Originally Posted by Sunflowers
Itsbluu80,
There is a process for divorce by default. It is not ideal and is (sometimes) easily overturned if and when the ex shows up. A default divorce can proceed once you have sent proper notification to your partner of your intent and he does not respond within the legal timeframe. Good luck.
Again, this is simply not true. If it's service by publication the "partner" gets no notice. Defaults are NOT that easily overturned. That's why the Court insists that service be made and proof filed OR that publication is by Court Order.
Obviously your experience is very different from mine - what is your experience in this?
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Full Member
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May 8, 2009, 01:43 PM
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TOS: Miscellaneous statements and general conversations belong in the Member Discussions board.
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Uber Member
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May 8, 2009, 02:06 PM
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Originally Posted by Sunflowers
TOS: Miscellaneous statements and general conversations belong in the Member Discussions board.
And you are referring to - ? I see no miscellaneous statements and/or general conversations. I see legal advice answering questions raised by the OP and other people attempting to answer.
Correcting misinformation does not fall under the "miscellaneous statements and/or general conversations" rule.
On the other hand, if anyone would like to discuss why the law is written as it is, that's a general discussion.
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Uber Member
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May 8, 2009, 08:44 PM
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Sunflowers - if you want to argue the law, keep it on the board. If you want to argue hurt feelings, keep it to yourself.
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Full Member
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May 8, 2009, 08:55 PM
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Tried to send this to you privately but your private box is full, perhaps you can move it since you are mod?
I just got done reading this thread: https://www.askmehelpdesk.com/dogs/d...ld-344913.html
I am sorry if I came off as someone who is trying to attack you, like the person/s in this thread. I never meant to, though I now understand you feel I have attacked you. I felt like you were attacking me at times too, but now I'm thinking more than likely I just took your intention wrong.
I am not one of the people here trying to pick on you or anything like that at all. Though I see there are those here who are doing just that. I'm sorry if you got that impression from me.
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Uber Member
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May 8, 2009, 09:55 PM
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Originally Posted by Sunflowers
Tried to send this to you privately but your private box is full, perhaps you can move it since you are mod?
I just got done reading this thread: https://www.askmehelpdesk.com/dogs/d...ld-344913.html
I am sorry if I came off as someone who is trying to attack you, like the person/s in this thread. I never meant to, though I now understand you feel I have attacked you. I felt like you were attacking me at times too, but now I'm thinking more than likely I just took your intention wrong.
I am not one of the people here trying to pick on you or anything like that at all. Though I see there are those here who are doing just that. I'm sorry if you got that impression from me.
My being a mod or not being a mod has nothing to do with my mailbox being full. I have not emptied it because, quite frankly, I don't want any more PM's from you. I believe I've already told you that. As I told you before, if you are unhappy with me, notify a moderator. I've been brought up short before and if I am inappropriate, I will be brought up short again.
Pick on me? If someone I care about or who is knowledgeable "picks on me," I'll be concerned. In the meantime, I'm not.
I have no idea what the dog thread has to do with anything - I still don't believe it is appropriate or necessary to hit a dog "a little." In fact, after someone else posted an expert opinion on the subject the OP changed her stance. I have no idea what you are reading into this, other than another malcontent gave me a reddie for the advice - she believes it is appropriate to strike an animal "a little." And she is entitled to her opinion.
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Uber Member
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May 8, 2009, 10:01 PM
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Originally Posted by Sunflowers
Itsbluu80,
There is a process for divorce by default. It is not ideal and is (sometimes) easily overturned if and when the ex shows up. A default divorce can proceed once you have sent proper notification to your partner of your intent and he does not respond within the legal timeframe. Good luck.
This is absolutely incorrect - and I am unable to edit my earlier post. The majority of divorces in my County are by default, not by trial.
A party appears by Attorney, an agreement is reached, the party withdraws, the divorce is granted BY DEFAULT.
Obviously there are some divorces where service is by publication and the Defendant argues failure to notify. I see very, very few of these which are overturned.
Please give your research concerning why this is not "ideal" and why (sometimes) easily overturned.
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