What claim the author is making in this passage?
]what his grounds are for that claim, and what is at stake in the passage—what are the implications, and why is it significant for the argument as a whole/.
“From this fundamental law of nature, by which men are commanded to endeavor peace, is derived this second law: that a man be willing, when others are so too, as far forth as for peace and defense of himself he shall think it necessary, to lay down this right to all things; and be contented with so much liberty against other men as he would allow other men against himself. For as long as every man Holder this right, of doing anything he like; so long are all men in the condition of war. But if other men will not lay down their right, as well as he, then there is no reason for anyone to divest himself of his: for that were to expose himself to prey, which no man is bound to, rather than to dispose himself to peace” (p. 4-5).