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Hope28
Mar 2, 2017, 04:00 AM
Asalmualikum
My friend n her husband got into a mutual divorce agreement recently after 1year of separation although the husband was reluctant to give divorce in early stages.but later on they both signed the mutually prepared divorce deed although the husband didn't pronounce the word ' talaq' and was silent all through the process
Is it a valid divorce as per Islam
Kindly help

talaniman
Mar 2, 2017, 05:30 AM
Yes, if it meets the requirements of local laws, and traditions. You can consult your local religious leader for further clarity.

afaroo
Mar 4, 2017, 04:10 PM
I agree with Talanima, if it meets the requirements of local laws, and traditions.

Here is some more is some more information, The most quick and easiest divorce is a divorce where both parties agree to everything before ever setting foot inside a courtroom, i.e. a divorce by mutual consent. When there is nothing to fight about, the court only needs to sign off on the agreement the parties already made regarding property division, spousal and child support, and child visitation, Thanks