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gacorrea
Sep 21, 2014, 03:22 PM
How does one report for US tax purposes the gain realized on the sale of foreign securities where the sale proceeds have never been repatriated but reinvested in other securities?

I understand that the sale of the foreign securities generates 2 types of gains/losses: (1) the gain/loss realized in the foreign currency and (2) the gain/loss that arises from translating the foreign currency back to USD.

My question is: Insofar as the sale proceeds have not been converted back into USD, does this imply that no foreign exchange gain/loss has been realized for tax purposes?

AtlantaTaxExpert
Sep 21, 2014, 04:27 PM
The fact that the proceeds were not converted to USD is irrelevant. The sale of the foreign securities results in a capital gain which MUST be reported as a taxable transaction irrespective of the currency in which the sale was transacted.