Please explain Adverse Possession. If you allow a person to use your property with out a lease, can they claim ownership of that property after a given time even though I have paid all property taxes during the time? If so, what is the time?

With adverse possession, the person using the property must be doing it in a way that is hostile to the owner. If you are the owner and you give them permission to use the property then their use is not hostile and they do not qualify for adverse possession.

You can read about adverse possession at Adverse possession - what is it? (http://real-estate-law.freeadvice.com/real-estate-law/adverse_possession.htm)