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jaga7
Mar 8, 2014, 08:26 AM
Hi there.

The girl Iīm seeing says she's pregnant. She said blood test was positive and March 4th she had an ultrasonography. According to her, it showed an aprox. 4 weeks pregnancy. I havenīt seen the exams. Well, we had relations on the begnning of Feb 10th. She said her period has came on day 10 always, since the first, for 8 years. Has never been late.

Okay. The relation I had with her before the period was on day 10 exactly, which matches the 4 weeks pregnancy, if true. What are the odds of getting pregnant exactly that day, and getting fecundated so fast that interrupted the menstrutation that was about to come that same day? I know that it is possible, even though unlikely, and I should add two more information:

1. I have not ejaculated inside. Not even a quick withdraw. I have pulled out minutes before, not seconds. I ejaculated minutes later, outside, by masturbation. So we had a long time sex and penetration with probably lots of pre- fluid, but not sperm itself.

2. Obviously, some sperm over her body may have touched her vagina, as parts of it got on the legs. Still a little chance, but obviously not a lot of sperm.

So, considering the odds of each fact: pregnancy from pre- fluid only + slight possibility of some getting in contact + the day she herself claims as the first day of her period = changes of pregnancy?

She had a boyfirend before, but was breaking up. And it may be of her interest not telling me that she had relations with him. She said she was not with him at all. Well, I can't prove it but she might have had relations with him during her fertile period and got pregnant the moment she was breaking up. Not a good fortune, but seens to me more likely to happen than getting pregnant with me, the way I described here.

Just need some specialized advice: What are the odds of getting pregnant having sex the way I described here?

Oliver2011
Mar 8, 2014, 09:50 AM
Hello soon to be father,

Isn't the time to worry about getting someone pregnant when you say no to Mr. Condom? Yes she could be pregnant and yes it could be yours.

tickle
Mar 8, 2014, 12:59 PM
Oh boy, mr. Oliver, you always hit the nail in the head quite accurately first time off!

I too would like to know why you did use protection, too urgent !

teacherjenn4
Mar 8, 2014, 02:27 PM
There is sperm in the pre-ejaculate. You need to get some information about how this all works, or you will a lot of children to pay for.

smoothy
Mar 8, 2014, 03:19 PM
I agree with everyone... everything you said point to the fact you know esentially NOTHING about human reproduction. Its past time you learn. Yes it can be yours... and if she hasn't been with anyone else...then you are. Get ready to be a daddy... and pay for it.

DNA test after the child is born will prove its yous or not without ANY shadow of a doubt.

DoulaLC
Mar 8, 2014, 07:41 PM
She was "breaking up" with her boyfriend or she had already been "broken up" with him by the time she was with you? Even if odds were low that you are the father, there is still the chance. And since you don't know when she may or may not have last been with him, insist that a DNA test is done after baby is born to know for certain.

Hopefully you will now rethink having sex without adequate birth control.

Fr_Chuck
Mar 9, 2014, 01:53 AM
There is plenty of sperm in the early fluids, no idea why you feel there is none. So pulling out, reduces the chance, but does not stop them.

A ultrasound at that time would normally show nothing, it is really too early for it to show up. Perhaps a doctor can see a little, but really it is not till 6 or 7th week that a ultrasound is really any good.

A blood test would show pregnancy, but it is not exact to the day, they are give or take a week, so there is a two week period she could have gotten pregnant from, depending if she had sex with other partners.

I would ask to see the tests, and even do a home test with you watching, if you think she is lying.

At the end, if you are not sure you the father, wait till child is born and get a DNA test.

DoulaLC
Mar 9, 2014, 08:39 AM
Fr_Chuck... for many, many years, it has been a given that pre-ejaculate carried plenty of sperm, but the thought of there being no sperm in pre-ejaculate comes from more recent research on the topic, and more research is projected.

Fluid produced primarily from the bulbourethral gland is designed to provide some lubrication and to neutralize an acidic environment in the uretha. With the research thus far, no sperm have been found in this fluid alone... which has a different composition from semen.

However, it is thought that the risk of pregnancy comes from sperm still present in the uretha from a previous ejaculation as the fluid passes through during arousal. The idea is that by having the man urinate prior to sex, or to refrain from a previous ejaculation for a few days, the risk of picking up rogue sperm diminishes to nil. And, of course, there is the scenario that some men may not always be mindful of just how close they are to ejaculating and wait too long before removal.

Regardless, there are more effective forms of contraception available for many couples. If relying on the withdrawal method, which many couples around the world do, a couple needs to know each other, and themselves, well to give the best odds possible for that method.