jaga7
Mar 8, 2014, 08:26 AM
Hi there.
The girl Iīm seeing says she's pregnant. She said blood test was positive and March 4th she had an ultrasonography. According to her, it showed an aprox. 4 weeks pregnancy. I havenīt seen the exams. Well, we had relations on the begnning of Feb 10th. She said her period has came on day 10 always, since the first, for 8 years. Has never been late.
Okay. The relation I had with her before the period was on day 10 exactly, which matches the 4 weeks pregnancy, if true. What are the odds of getting pregnant exactly that day, and getting fecundated so fast that interrupted the menstrutation that was about to come that same day? I know that it is possible, even though unlikely, and I should add two more information:
1. I have not ejaculated inside. Not even a quick withdraw. I have pulled out minutes before, not seconds. I ejaculated minutes later, outside, by masturbation. So we had a long time sex and penetration with probably lots of pre- fluid, but not sperm itself.
2. Obviously, some sperm over her body may have touched her vagina, as parts of it got on the legs. Still a little chance, but obviously not a lot of sperm.
So, considering the odds of each fact: pregnancy from pre- fluid only + slight possibility of some getting in contact + the day she herself claims as the first day of her period = changes of pregnancy?
She had a boyfirend before, but was breaking up. And it may be of her interest not telling me that she had relations with him. She said she was not with him at all. Well, I can't prove it but she might have had relations with him during her fertile period and got pregnant the moment she was breaking up. Not a good fortune, but seens to me more likely to happen than getting pregnant with me, the way I described here.
Just need some specialized advice: What are the odds of getting pregnant having sex the way I described here?
The girl Iīm seeing says she's pregnant. She said blood test was positive and March 4th she had an ultrasonography. According to her, it showed an aprox. 4 weeks pregnancy. I havenīt seen the exams. Well, we had relations on the begnning of Feb 10th. She said her period has came on day 10 always, since the first, for 8 years. Has never been late.
Okay. The relation I had with her before the period was on day 10 exactly, which matches the 4 weeks pregnancy, if true. What are the odds of getting pregnant exactly that day, and getting fecundated so fast that interrupted the menstrutation that was about to come that same day? I know that it is possible, even though unlikely, and I should add two more information:
1. I have not ejaculated inside. Not even a quick withdraw. I have pulled out minutes before, not seconds. I ejaculated minutes later, outside, by masturbation. So we had a long time sex and penetration with probably lots of pre- fluid, but not sperm itself.
2. Obviously, some sperm over her body may have touched her vagina, as parts of it got on the legs. Still a little chance, but obviously not a lot of sperm.
So, considering the odds of each fact: pregnancy from pre- fluid only + slight possibility of some getting in contact + the day she herself claims as the first day of her period = changes of pregnancy?
She had a boyfirend before, but was breaking up. And it may be of her interest not telling me that she had relations with him. She said she was not with him at all. Well, I can't prove it but she might have had relations with him during her fertile period and got pregnant the moment she was breaking up. Not a good fortune, but seens to me more likely to happen than getting pregnant with me, the way I described here.
Just need some specialized advice: What are the odds of getting pregnant having sex the way I described here?