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dmtt1212
Apr 1, 2007, 06:04 AM
If my husband owned a house before we were married (2 yrs ago) and his name only is on the deed, how does that affect me if he were to die before me? Does my name NEED to be on the title/deed for it to automatically pass to me? Or in MA, is this automatic?
Thanks!

Fr_Chuck
Apr 1, 2007, 07:16 AM
If you are not listed properly on the deed it will not "automaticly" pass, but will have to go to probate. ( and he should then have a will naming you as getting the house).