r4rafi
Oct 25, 2013, 06:52 AM
Dear Sir,
My friend had been married to a person for 6 months and that person was impotent. they didn't have any physical relation ever. now she has got khula from him,
I need to know
1. Does the condition of iddath apply oh her
if Yes
2. can you please explain the reason.
waiting for your kind response.
thank you
My friend had been married to a person for 6 months and that person was impotent. they didn't have any physical relation ever. now she has got khula from him,
I need to know
1. Does the condition of iddath apply oh her
if Yes
2. can you please explain the reason.
waiting for your kind response.
thank you