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tpowell91
Jul 25, 2013, 01:29 PM
When I first got pregnant in August of last year I had two partners within a weeks time the first person I had sex with was on the 28th of August a Tuesday.. And the second was the 1st of September the day I was suppose to ovulate but it was kind of on the second cause it was about 2am the second of September I had sex with the first guy during my fertile days and the condom broke.. The second person didn't use a condom.. My period was on the 17th or 18th of August.. Here's where it gets difficult I was sure it was the guy I didn't use a condom with because I was suppose to ovulate that day but when I went to the hospital for cramps at like 6 weeks I was suppose to be just turning 6 weeks the next day but from ultrasound I was measuring 6 weeks 3 days I was measuring at that same pace up until about 11-12 weeks I was always measuring 11 weeks 3 days or 12 weeks 3 days I was just always measuring a couple days ahead... So it made me think is it possible my daughter is the first guys since the condom broke with him? Nd I was measuring ahead early on in my pregnancy? We are going to get a DNA test I would just like opinions.. Could I have ovulated on my fertile days? Both Medical and regular advice please

tickle
Jul 25, 2013, 02:02 PM
Your question is impossible to answer, from a medical and regular standpoint. Wait for the DNA information is your best bet.

odinn7
Jul 25, 2013, 02:06 PM
The time is too close for anyone to accurately tell you who the father is without a DNA test being done.

tpowell91
Jul 26, 2013, 06:03 AM
OK thank you