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shelbee
Dec 10, 2012, 07:57 PM
I answered this question as:
It acts opposite of the mothing of the object because it is pushing through the air particles.
My teacher said it was incorrect and I would like a second opinion.
If it is wrong will you please explain how? Because I do not know another answer to this question.
Thank you.

ebaines
Dec 11, 2012, 08:53 AM
it acts opposite of the mothing of the object because it is pushing through the air particles

I don't know what you mean by "mothing," but I would say that air resistance acts in the direction opposite to the direction of movement of the object relative to the air. Two examples: (1) if there is no wind and you throw a ball through the air the direction of resistance is opposite to the direction of the ball's velocity vector, and (2) if you throw the same ball but there's a side wind then the direction of air resistance is the velocity vector for the wind minus the velocity vector of the ball.