Steve144
Jun 12, 2012, 05:33 AM
I refinanced my mortgage last year using the HARP program. My 1st loan is now with QuickenLoans, and my 2nd is at BofA. For the refi last year, BofA subordinated their loan.
Approximate loan amounts: 1st - $355k; 2nd - $55k; current home value - $450k
QuickenLoans has a program where they pay most of the closing costs to re-fi again if the rates drop after closing a loan, but I am being told that a re-fi would trigger PMI because I don't have 20% equity.
Can't QuickenLoans simply re-fi the first without concern for the 2nd? Since QuickenLoans would hold the same risk ($355k), why would it matter that I owe > 80% in combined loans?
Thanks,
-Steve
Approximate loan amounts: 1st - $355k; 2nd - $55k; current home value - $450k
QuickenLoans has a program where they pay most of the closing costs to re-fi again if the rates drop after closing a loan, but I am being told that a re-fi would trigger PMI because I don't have 20% equity.
Can't QuickenLoans simply re-fi the first without concern for the 2nd? Since QuickenLoans would hold the same risk ($355k), why would it matter that I owe > 80% in combined loans?
Thanks,
-Steve