View Full Version : When a property in California is owned jointly, 50/50 by two parties, is it true that
razorwyre
Apr 9, 2012, 10:23 AM
When a property in California is owned jointly, 50/50 by two parties, is it true that party "A" can force party "B" to sell it, even if party "B" doesn't want to? Thanks in advance... Chris
AK lawyer
Apr 9, 2012, 10:47 AM
Yes. This is true just about everywhere in the United States (and the British Commonwealth, as far as I know.).
Party A would sue Party B for a "partition". If the property can't be conveniently and fairly divided, it would be sold and A & B would get their respective portions of the proceeds (less court costs, cost of sale, etc.)
razorwyre
Apr 9, 2012, 11:23 AM
How long does that process usually take in court, suing a party for a "partition"? Thanks again~! CHRIS
AK lawyer
Apr 9, 2012, 01:00 PM
How long does that process usually take in court, suing a party for a "partition"? Thanks again~! CHRIS
Several months at a minimum. It would depend on how busy the courts are where you are. It can get complicated, and that would have course draw it out.