I am an English man who married a Greek girl IN Athens in July 1998 & we happily lived together for a further 2 & a half years there.
We then split & I returned to the UK in March 2001 & haven't returned since.
We had no children together & no property or other financial ties to sort out.

She is aware of the fact that I want a divorce and agrees completely with this.
She seems to that that because we got married IN Greece, that in order to get a divorce I must return to Greece to sign the relevant paperwork.
I find this hard to believe personally. Surely this is not the case & something can be done without me leaving the UK.

Does us being separated for nearly 6 years make any difference to this?
Any idea of any cost differnces in our situation too??

Thank you for any help anyone can give.

X

You sooo know the answer to your own question, go get yourself a solictor, they will do all the hard work for u, I'm sure there is no need for you to have to return to her country. But I am bettin that it will cost more than you are expecting!

You so know the answer to your own question, go get your self a solictor, they will do all the hard work for you, I'm sure there is no need for you to have to return to her country. But I am bettin that it will cost more than you are expecting!

I had this happen to me and I live in Australia and my ex husband was in Greece and a lawyer represented me with all the paperwork and acted as a power of attorney, notifying me of when I had to sign papers