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big_hen_dawg
Nov 15, 2011, 10:50 PM
If you bought a home and it did not list you as grantee does the mortgage corporation get the property and did I even own the home

LisaB4657
Nov 15, 2011, 11:41 PM
Please start a new thread for new questions. You added yours to an old one that's been closed for a long time. I moved it to a new thread so everyone will see it.

We're going to need more info. How did you buy the home? Was it under a contract for deed? What's the current status? Did you take out the mortgage loan or was there already one on the property?

ScottGem
Nov 16, 2011, 05:01 AM
The grantee is the person being deeded the property. So if you name is not on the deed, you never owned the property.

A mortgage is a loan using a property as collateral. If the mortgage is not paid, then they can foreclose.

If that doesn't answer your question then you need to explain in more detail.

babesg1
Nov 16, 2011, 01:01 PM
The previous home owner of the home was four other people and was listed as the Grantor. In 2002 I bought the home for $232,000 with a cashiers check. I got a Statutory Warranty Deed that is in consideration of $10.00 that conveys and warrants to me, a single woman the following described real estate, situated in the County of King, State of Washington. I cashed out on the equity several times. And now the current Trustee's Deed lists Northwest Trustee as Grantor and lists Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation as Grantee. The property was purchased in the context of a foreclosure, that the trustee made no representations to Grantee concerning the Property and that the trustee owned no duty to make disclosures to Grantee concerning the Property, Grantee relying solely upon his/her/their/its own due diligence investigation before electing to bid for the Property. The assistant vice president is the person who acknowledged that she signed this instrument, on oath stated that she was authorized to execute the instrument and acknowledged she as the assistant vice preside of Northwest Trustee Services, Inc. to be the free and voluntary act of such party for the uses and purposes mentioned in the instrument.

Thank you for your feed back and I appreciate all your input and helping a fellow American on the land.

ScottGem
Nov 16, 2011, 01:44 PM
Umm, This thread was started by big_hen_dawg, but follow-up was posted by babesg1. Can you explain why?

But based on what you said, Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation is now the owner. But unless there is a deed conveying the property from you to Northwest Trustee or some proof that Northwest Trustee had the right to convey the property, there is a possibility you could sue. Without knowing more about how the property went from you in 2002 to Northwest trustee, I can't say more.

LisaB4657
Nov 16, 2011, 02:13 PM
When you bought the property did you have a title search performed? Was there a mortgage on the property at the time you purchased that was not paid off? It's possible, but unlikely, that the prior mortgage was not paid off and the prior lender foreclosed.

The other possibility is that when you financed the property after the purchase, the financing was done in the form of a deed of trust, where the deed is in the name of the lender, in trust for you. It should provide that when the mortgage loan is paid in full then the deed will be transferred to you.

The best way of making sure of the ownership of the property is to contact a title company and have a search performed. If you bought title insurance when you purchased the property then you can call the agency that handled it for you.

big_hen_dawg
Nov 16, 2011, 06:58 PM
Mulitiple attempts to have questions awnsered have been made to get information to show how, when and from whom it acquired the property, so that we can establish a debt owed and figure out if they have the right to foreclose. They have ignored, dismissed, and had never had intentions of even considering to answer our qualified written requests.

ScottGem
Nov 16, 2011, 08:25 PM
Again, what's with the two accounts?

And your last post is unclear. Who is the "it" you refer to? Is it Northwest Trustee? Are you saying they just showed up and said they own the property? Did you not go to court to force them to show proof they own the property? Why are you just asking them for documents?

big_hen_dawg
Nov 16, 2011, 09:09 PM
Yes northwest trustee is IT and their representatives the lawyers, we have asked them to disclose but instead they/IT pushed their hand written documents into the record and completely ignored our proper paper work, they/IT have succeeded in getting a writ of restitution/"eviction", we did not let the sheriff in the home him,a realtor higher ed by the attorneys who work for them/IT, and a lock smith, showed up and drilled the locks, told me and my bro to grab a bag and leave, they changed the locks while sg1 was not home. A commissioner said that they did not have to disclose and that it was an underlying issue and was not part of what's going on, so they did not have to awnser our questions.

big_hen_dawg
Nov 16, 2011, 09:15 PM
This is happening in a non-judicial process, as they/IT call it. We have a judicial review on this Friday

ScottGem
Nov 17, 2011, 04:22 AM
I'll ask one more time for you to explain the multiple accounts. We have rules about using multiple accounts.

Something doesn't smell right here. For them to force you out of the home without a court order would seem to open them up for lawsuits. Where is this happening? US law supports the sanctity of the home. For anyone to force someone from their home without a valid court order violates constitutional rights and several laws.

As soon as they showed up claiming ownership of the home you should have gone to court for an injunction preventing them from taking action until a court determines who actually owns the home.