jwcurtis
Oct 28, 2011, 01:41 AM
My husband has never had pre-***. We were wondering what the pros and cons were of him not having any.
Curlyben
Oct 28, 2011, 01:52 AM
Makes no difference either way.
J_9
Oct 28, 2011, 01:57 AM
It's not possible not to, it's most likely that it has never been noticed or has never reached the outer glans of the penis.
Pre-ejaculation is the early seminal fluid that lubricates the urethra prior to ejactulation. It's just possible that the pre-ejaculated was never released outside of the penis itself.
It makes no difference whether this is released from the penis.