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Lady85
Aug 14, 2011, 03:14 AM
Recently my current jobs performance agreement changed to not do fair standards. My question is can the employer actually legally get away with making the employees adhere to the new PA when we did not sign in agreement with it as we did with the original PA? Also something that is tied to the PA are customer surveys. If there is a failed survey, the employee's supervisor is required to review and coach the call to see if the employee did anything wrong. There is currently a process set in place to have a survey overturned but the customer would have had left a verbatim on why they gave the score they did. However in going through the process of overturning a failed survey, there is an option for call review;but that option gets denied when submitted by a supervisor. The reason that is given is simply that this reason can not be used. Can the employer legally get away with all these issues?

ScottGem
Aug 14, 2011, 03:34 AM
It may depend on the wording of this agreement. But the likelihood is that it is legal. Such agreements are generally not covered by law. Employees may have had to sign the original agreement only to acknowledge having read it, not as agreement to its terms. Companies are allowed to set levels of performance and reviews as long as they don't conflict with existing laws.

Fr_Chuck
Aug 14, 2011, 09:15 AM
And normally companies can change the rules