If the inverse function of f exists, and the graph of f has a y-intercept, the y-intercept of f is an x-intercept of f^-1

Do you know the relationship between a function f and it's inverse, provided it exists?

It can be helpful to try this on a few functions and see if it works. For example, compare y = e^x and its inverse: y = ln(x). Or y = cos(x) and its inverse y = Arccos(x). Or y = x^2 and y = sqrt(x). From these few examples you should get a pretty good idea of whether the relationship between the y- intercept of a function and the x- intercept of its inverse is true.