aliseaodo
Jan 13, 2011, 09:56 AM
The prevailing wage rate in my state (WA) includes fringe (if any). For example: the prevailing wage rate for a journeyman inside commercial electrician is $57.74, the wage we pay them is $40.81, and the 'fringe' (pension, health, apprentice training, etc) that WE pay for them adds up to $16.93. The total that our company pays for a commercial electrician is $57.74 - which is conveniently the required prevailing wage rate. It is my understanding that the employer does not have to provide fringe, but the employee must receive the required prevailing wage rate - be it in the form of wage + fringe, or all in the wage. (I hope this makes sense to you - it sounds a bit confusing when I read it back to myself ;))
willowrun
Jan 13, 2011, 10:08 AM
Thank you for the explanation so is a percentage basiclly of what we pay for all benefits
aliseaodo
Jan 13, 2011, 11:47 AM
No - there is not a percentage involved, the prevailing wage rate must be met by one of two things:
1) the wage you pay your employee PLUS the fringe benefits YOU PAY for the employee (using the amounts from my first post: $40.81 + $16.93= 57.47)
-OR IF YOU PAY NO FRINGE-
2) The prevailing wage rate must be met by the wage alone.
I hope I'm not misunderstanding your question?