chrisw1704
Jan 6, 2011, 11:15 AM
sec x (1 tan x/sec x)/tan x sec x = 1
ebaines
Jan 7, 2011, 09:51 AM
sec x (1 tan x/sec x)/tan x sec x = 1
No - because your equation is incomplete (it seems to be missing a couple of plus or minus signs). Please retype it. But here's a hint how to proceed: replace secx with 1/cosx, and tanx with sinx/cos.
By the way - I'm wondering if that second secx in your equation shouldn't be cscx instead?