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rexannbumpus
Nov 7, 2010, 06:51 PM
My doctor's did not file the bill in a timely manner from 2007 and I am just now being notified. Am I responsible for paying this bill?

ScottGem
Nov 7, 2010, 08:43 PM
Were the services performed? If the insurance is refusing to pay because of the age of the bill, you have case, otherwise not.

rexannbumpus
Nov 8, 2010, 07:13 AM
Yes, the insurance says it was not filed in a timely manner. There are actually two of them. One the insurance says no referral on file, though I know there was, but at this late date, don't think I can fight that one... They are office visits back to back...

excon
Nov 8, 2010, 07:43 AM
One the insurance says no referral on file, though I know there was, but at this late date, don't think I can fight that one... Hello rexann:

I can't tell who you want to be responsible if you aren't... Sounds to me like you think your insurance should have paid... But, if the visits were back to back, BOTH billings are OLD, and the reason that no referral was made sounds bogus... But, your doctor wouldn't tell you that, because he's saying that HE made the mistake...

I think he DID make a mistake but it wasn't referring you, or not, or keeping proper records... It was, as one of them said, the bill wasn't filed timely.. That's on the doctor. IF he would have done what he was supposed to do, he'd HAVE his money a long time ago, and you wouldn't have been the one who paid it... So, you shouldn't be the one who pays it now.

excon

ScottGem
Nov 9, 2010, 04:47 PM
What excon said!