mngnmfn
Nov 6, 2010, 12:37 PM
I'm beyond lost here, is there a way to prove that?
galactus
Nov 6, 2010, 02:53 PM
sec^{2}(x)=\frac{csc(x)}{csc(x)-sin(x)}
Start with the right hand side:
Since csc(x)=\frac{1}{sin(x)}:
\frac{\frac{1}{sin(x)}}{\frac{1}{sin(x)}-sin(x)}
\frac{\frac{1}{sin(x)}}{\frac{1-sin^{2}(x)}{sin(x)}}
\frac{1}{sin(x)}\cdot \frac{sin(x)}{1-sin^{2}(x)}
sin(x) cancels and we are left with:
\frac{1}{1-sin^{2}(x)}
Remember that cos^{2}(x)=1-sin^{2}(x)
\frac{1}{cos^{2}(x)}=sec^{2}(x)
mngnmfn
Nov 6, 2010, 03:02 PM
Thank you! You're brilliant!