frazwood
Nov 5, 2010, 08:09 AM
This spring, my wife and I bought a lake home near Brainerd, Minnesota. The property is actually inside a very small city (less than 150 residents).
When we bought the home, we were told that the actual lake front property was owned by the city, not the nearby homeowner, which was a transaction that occurred more than 40 years ago when the city decided to put in a short road in between three houses and the lake. We were told (and this was confirmed by our mortgage company and an independent appraiser) that we would have complete access to the lake front, which has been the case for this entire year. Specifically, the city property was something like an easement on every property where the property owner didn't technically own the land so that utilities could be run etc. As proof of this unspoken agreement, we were shown that the real estate taxes as assessed by the county assume that we (i.e. not the city) own the lake front.
Now, the city council (or at least one member of the city council) is trying to make sure that we no longer use "city property". This would drastically affect the value of the property and also make it into something that we didn't want in the first place (i.e. we wanted a lake home).
My questions is: do I have any sort of case here?
The size of the property between the road and the lake is very small, perhaps 100 ft (lakeshore) by 50 ft. Also, I have a copy of the city council minutes from December 2009 when the county tax auditor visited the city council and told them that the property should be given back to the homeowners.
For what it is worth, the other side of my property also borders "city property", where they now want to install a fence to protect a city well. Apparently, their original plans call for them to place the fence on my property (there's something about a need for a 200 foot radius around the well)... so there may be some room for negotiation anyway.
When we bought the home, we were told that the actual lake front property was owned by the city, not the nearby homeowner, which was a transaction that occurred more than 40 years ago when the city decided to put in a short road in between three houses and the lake. We were told (and this was confirmed by our mortgage company and an independent appraiser) that we would have complete access to the lake front, which has been the case for this entire year. Specifically, the city property was something like an easement on every property where the property owner didn't technically own the land so that utilities could be run etc. As proof of this unspoken agreement, we were shown that the real estate taxes as assessed by the county assume that we (i.e. not the city) own the lake front.
Now, the city council (or at least one member of the city council) is trying to make sure that we no longer use "city property". This would drastically affect the value of the property and also make it into something that we didn't want in the first place (i.e. we wanted a lake home).
My questions is: do I have any sort of case here?
The size of the property between the road and the lake is very small, perhaps 100 ft (lakeshore) by 50 ft. Also, I have a copy of the city council minutes from December 2009 when the county tax auditor visited the city council and told them that the property should be given back to the homeowners.
For what it is worth, the other side of my property also borders "city property", where they now want to install a fence to protect a city well. Apparently, their original plans call for them to place the fence on my property (there's something about a need for a 200 foot radius around the well)... so there may be some room for negotiation anyway.