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rijl
Dec 24, 2006, 09:33 AM
My husband is from the Netherlands and came here on a visa waiver in July '04. At that time we were not married. We reside in the state of Missouri and now have a son together. Since then we've been trying to save money for an immigration lawyer. He has not claimed any benefits because there are not any, to my knowledge, and he can't work for obvious reasons. There is only one income in our household, which is mine. I have a couple of questions. First, given this information and that I'm not familiar with the term 'inactive status', does that mean that he is here illegally or that has no status at all? Second, would he be considered a resident or non resident alien? Thank you for your time and advice.

vcavina
Dec 24, 2006, 07:59 PM
You may find the answer here

http://www.uscis.gov/portal/site/uscis

http://travel.state.gov/visa/frvi/bulletin/bulletin_1770.html