7 siblings. Inherited house, divided among evenly when sold. One refuses to sign paper, because he was not told price the house is to be sold. What will happen to his share?

What makes you think the house can be sold without all the owners agreeing? When someone buys real estate they want to insure clear title. If the title company isn't satisfied of clear title they won't authorize the sale.

On the other hand, if the property has not yet been transferred into the ownership of the heirs, then its still owned by the estate and the executor of the estate can sell the property without getting a signature from all the heirs. So there may have been no need for all to sign.

In either case, this doesn't affect distribution of the estate. ALL heirs are still entitled to their share of the estate when liquidated.

What will happen to his share?Hello noy:

The dumb person who didn't agree with his brothers and sisters should NOT be given a share. Who does that person think he is? He wanted to screw his siblings, so they should screw him.

Ok, that ISN'T what should happen, but it looks like you thought it SHOULD.

excon

7 siblings. Inherited house, divided among evenly when sold. One refuses to sign paper, because he was not told price the house is to be sold. What will happen to his share?

As ScottGem said,

if title in all 7, the house isn't going to be sold unless all ageee (or a partition action is brought); and
if title still in estate, house can be sold. No need to "sign paper". When the estate is distributed, a check will be mailed to the one. Whether he cashes it is his business.

Why not tell him the price it's going for and put an end to all this? Are you one of the 6 who wants to sell, the hold-out, the executor, the realtor, or what?

First he has full right not to sign any paper work unless there is full disclousure of all money. They have to inform all of the people to exactly what is being done.

They can not sell the property without all owners permission.
So they can not do anything with the money since there can not be money without him signing.

If the court forces the sale ( one way of course) he can defend in court not accepting offer. But if the court forces the sale, then he will get his share.

They are required to give him his share of the money