askedaff
Jun 15, 2010, 11:02 PM
My fiancée helped her boyfriend at the time by co signing for a car in 2006. In 2007 there was a summons sent to his house and accepted by a co-occupant. We didn't know about any of this until her wages were garnished starting in 2010. I went to the courthouse and pulled up the Proof of Service of Summons and Original Sale Contract from 2006. Her name was signed on the contract but according to the contract they were living at the same address. Am I correct in assuming that this is improper service because it was never delivered to her true address (because it was not on any contracts) and the "co-occupant" whose name is on the Proof of Service of Summons did nothing to inform her of the summons? Thanks.