View Full Version : 1 mill = $(1/1000) can be expressed as $(1/1000)/(1 mill).
answer this
Feb 14, 2010, 12:57 PM
Hello:
1 mill = $(1/1000) can be expressed as $(1/1000)/(1 mill).
How does 1 mill = $(1/1000) becomes $(1/1000)/(1 mill)?
morgaine300
Feb 14, 2010, 09:00 PM
\text{1\ mill\ =\ \frac{1}{1000}}
Divide both sides by the 1 mill.
\text{\frac{\cancel{1\ mill}}{\cancel{1\ mill}}\ =\ \frac{\frac{1}{1000}}{1\ mill}}
Since the left canceled out, you end up with:
\text{\frac{\frac{1}{1000}}{1\ mill}}
Are you using this for taxes? And like trying to work things backwards? I think there's probably an easier way to do it. For one thing, instead of using 1/1000 which makes it look all icky, you can move the decimal three places to the left. Like 26 mills would be .026. A mill is one tenth of a cent, or .001. That also isn't the only way to do it and isn't the way I do it.
KISS
Feb 14, 2010, 09:09 PM
One mill can also mean 0.001". Typical machinists talk. Thousanths is too hard to say.
morgaine300
Feb 14, 2010, 09:48 PM
Machinists and "financists" are not supposed to have things in common. That's like sacrilege or something. :D