California Family Law Question -- If an asset, such as a piece of land, was never part of the divorce settlement, but was sold prior to the divorce by my ex-spouse, who fraudulently signed my name and took all the money, can I file an order to show cause under CA Family Code 2556 to try and recover at least 1/2 of the sale price?

Does the statute of limitations under CA Family Code 2122 bar my action if the divorce was finalized over a year ago?

I read that in one case even though the parties agreed a pension and 401(k) were not part of the divorce proceedings, an ex-spouse can reopen the case after three and a half years based upon CA Family Code 2556 and try and obtain half of the other ex-spouses' retirement benefits.

Thank you!

Im not sure I understand the question. Did you know about it or are you claiming you knew nothing about it ? When was the property acquired? Was it a gift or inheritance ?