OK first, jesus died on the cross to forgive us for our sins, right?

Well, what about all of the people before jesus, what happened to them? Did they get their sins forgiven?

I was just thinking about it and wanted to know what other people thought

Thanks!

Hebrews 11 says that those who believed in the promise in the Savior would also have their sins forgiven and would be saved.

well, what about all of the people before jesus, what happend to them?



1 Corinthians 10:1-4 Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea; And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea; And did all eat the same spiritual meat; And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.


did they get their sins forgiven?

1 Corinthians 10:5 But with many of them God was not well pleased: for they were overthrown in the wilderness.

So we have them as an ensample

1 Corinthians 10:11-13 Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: and they are written for our admonition, upon whom the ends of the world are come. Wherefore let him that thinketh he standeth take heed lest he fall. There hath no temptation taken you but such as is common to man: but God is faithful, who will not suffer you to be tempted above that ye are able; but will with the temptation also make a way to escape, that ye may be able to bear it.

KJV

I hope this will help you. After Jesus was crucified, He desended into the place of the dead. This was Sheol. Now Sheol has 2 compartments. One is called hades where the sinners go, and the other Abrahams Busom for the good guys. Jesus took all the good guys to heaven and left the sinners in hades where they are today. From what the bible tells us hades is very much like hell. Read Luke 16: 19-31. When the white throne
Judgement is held Satan will be thrown into the lake of fire joining the anti-christ and the false prophet, and hades and all its occupants will also be dumped into the lake of fire
Where they will be forever, and ever, and ever. They too will have received new bodies so the fires in the lake of fire will not burn them to death. They will be in torment forever, and ever, and ever. Lots of luck.

Maggie 3

Thanks for that maggie - never realised the bible referred to Hell by the Greek Gods name Hades.

I thought when the bible was first used, all references to former deities was erased.

Fascinating

Phlanx,

It was faith in God that made them righteous before the cross. The animal sacrifices were a picture of the perfect sacrifice that would come. The blood of animals covered their sins... the blood of Christ washed them away. But it was their FAITH. Read Hebrews 11.

ClassyT
Yes, Jesus was/is the sacraficial lamb of the Christian Passover covenant.
The perfect unblemished sacrifice whose body abd blood washes away the sins of those who believe in Him and what He has done for us throigh the infinite and perfect love and mercy of God.
Peace and kindness,
Fred

The people who lived before Jesus died for our sins are judged by their righteousness. Very simple.!

ChildOfGod_,
The way I read the bible that is partly true.
They were also judged by how well they kept the law.
Peace and kindness,
Fred

Where in the wide world of sports does it say that ?

Excellent quotes ! But you only half answered the question.

Excellent example of DO IT YOURSELF THEOLOGY.

Nice icon!! Duh

Wrongggggggg

NAH!!

This is a very important concept for Christians. For that reason it deserves an advanced answer.
1. JESUS DID NOT DIE ON THE CROSS FOR OUR SINS. Here is what really happened: Revelation 13:8 says:"THE LAMB SLAIN FROM THE FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD." This means that Jesus died, paid for the sins of the ELECT ONLY, and arose to life BEFORE He created the world. His death on the cross was a demonstration only, and its purpose was to kick Satan out of Heaven and to show the world HOW HE suffered and died the first time around. See Ephesians 1:4,5. ACCORDING AS HE HATH CHOSEN US IN HIM BEFORE THE FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD THAT WE SHOULD BE HOLY AND WITHOUT BLAME BEFORE HIM IN LOVE. HAVING PREDESTINATED US UNTO THE ADOPTION OF CHILDREN BY JESUS CHRIST TO HIMSELF ACCORDING TO THE GOOD PLEASURE OF HIS WILL. Also II Timothy 1:9,10. WHO HATH SAVED US AND CALLED US WITH A HOLY CALLING NOT ACCORDING TO OUR WORKS BUT ACCORDING TO HIS OWN PURPOSE AND GRACE WHICH WAS GIVEN US IN CHRIST JESUS BEFORE THE WORLD BEGAN. BUT IS NOW MADE MANIFEST BY THE APPEARING OF OUR SAVIOR JESUS CHRIST... "Is now made manifest" can also be expressed as IS NOW DEMONSTRATED.
2. JESUS DID NOT PAY FOR THE SINS OF EVERY HUMAN BEING. ONLY FOR THE SINS OF THE ELECT. The Bible calls them a REMNANT which means a small fraction of the whole.The following scriptures refer specifically to a remnant who shall be saved. Isaiah 37:32, Jeremiah 23:3, Jer.31:7, Eze.6:8, Eze.14:22, Micah 2:12, Micah 7:18 WHO IS A GOD LIKE UNTO THEE THAT PARDONETH INIQUITY AND PASSETH BY THE TRANSGRESSION OF THE REMNANT OF HIS HERITAGE ? Romans 9:27 ...A REMNANT SHALL BE SAVED. Also look at Revelation 12:17 and many others.

HeadStrongBoy,
You might be strong willed but you are somewhat wrong.
The bible says the Jesus died to save the world.
Now it is true that not everyone believes in and on Jesus.
In fact there are about 4 billion people who do not.
But there are about 2 billion Christians and IF all of them are save that is the so-called remnant.
2 out of 6 is the few to be saved.
True, there probably are some who call themselves Christian who will not be saved, but I pray that they all will be.
Peace and kindness,
Fred

Quoting arcura:
"True, there probably are some who call themselves Christian who will not be saved, but I pray that they all will be."

If you would be kind enough to re-read my previous post you'll notice that I gave exact Bible quotes. Your answer did not return the courtesy of any precise quotations to support your point of view. I suppose that having the rank of "expert" makes you immune to such routine scholarly practices. Nevertheless, I respectfully assert that YOU are in the wrong. And you will remain there until you can show me from Bible verses that your position is the right one.

Several members seem to think that before the cross God another salvation plan than the one after the cross. Unfortunately the Bible does not support that point of view. God makes it very plain that there is ONLY ONE SAVIOR. (Isaiah 43:11) I know that people are going to find all kinds of rationalizations and interpretations to deny that verse. But nevertheless it's there. The answer is found in Revelation 13:8. "The lamb slain from (before) the foundation of the world." I know, it's another unorthodox interpretation. BUT IT FITS THE FACTS. And those facts come from the Bible. Bada-bing. Very simple.

The answer is found in Revelation 13:8. "The lamb slain from (before) the foundation of the world." I know, it's another unorthodox interpretation. BUT IT FITS THE FACTS. And those facts come from the Bible. Bada-bing. Very simple.

Hi HSB,

I think there is a grammatical problem here.

The word from is a preposition was denotes 'apart from' For example, oxygen is derived FROM water. There are very few other ways it can be used within the context of the sentence.

The same doesn't apply to the word 'before'. If we substitute the word 'before' for 'from' then we have preposition which locates the noun 'Lamb in time and space'. One could argue that 'before' in this context means prior to the creation of the world. The problem then becomes the lack of location in time and space. Nonetheless, it may be possible to overlook this and use it as a type of defacto time and space. However, this only creates further confusion because the word can be used in a variety of ways. Another example being. 'He stood BEFORE the council of elders' This interpretation has nothing to do with prior.

It would seem reasonable to assume that linguists and scholars considered this problem long before me. It stands to reason they choose 'from' rather than 'before' because of its limitation of meaning. They could have used 'before' instead of 'from' but for the reasons I have just outlined.

Regards

Tut

Quoting TUT317:
"I think there is a grammatical problem here."

Thanks for adding your observation. Neverthleless I was aware of it. Though I do not yet have all the facts at my fingertips, I mean to show eventually, that the original Greek word (a preposition) CAN LEGITIMATELY be translated as EITHER "apart from" or "before" (as in time).

Looking back at some of the comments about my posts, I've found one that I'd like to respond to. It's related to this thread.

The commenter said that my assertion that Jesus (the lamb) died before the creation was a "gross misreading" of Revelation 13:8. Hebrews 9:22 says:"...and without shedding of blood there is no remission."

That verse fits exactly with the idea that remission of sins WAS ALREADY AVAILABLE to all the Old Testament believers. Because Christ had ALREADY shed His blood (given His life) BEFORE any of them were born.

And furthermore, all of the Old Testament blood sacrifices of animals were a VERY APT PICTURE of what Christ HAD ALREADY ACCOMPLISHED for His people BEFORE the creation. It fits PERFECTLY.