In 2005 friends wrote up an agreement, signed and had it witnessed for my daughter for her to be able to get a loan for a manufactured home, of a place to stay for free for ever if that's what she chose to do. Without that 'agreement' the mobile home center would not allow my daughter to purchase her home.

Then in 2007 they came and explained to her they were in deep debt and was there any possibility of her paying rent. My daughter felt seeing as they had helped her when she needed it, that she could help them out somehow and agreed to it. Nothing was written up or signed by either parties.

Now in 2009 they [the friends] are trying to get my daughter evicted from off the property. They told her she does not have any rights because she paid them rent.

My daughter wants to know if her having paid rent does negate the original agreement; if it does can she sue them to pay for the mobile home? If it does not, can she remain on the 1 acre they allocated for her?

None of what you have said makes any sense to me. I have no clue what the original agreement stated or why it was even necessary. If your daughter bought the home, why are her friends charging her rent?

Who is the listed property owner for the home - the friend or your daughter?

If your daughter has been living at the property since 2005, she has established residency and will have to be given the same rights as a month-to-month tenant according to your state laws.