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sore leg
Jul 18, 2009, 11:03 PM
My husband had an affair now the other woman has had his baby he says he didn't ejaculate in her and could hardly get it up , but now she is claiming it is his. We have been together 18 years and have 4 children, the other woman is saying her child is entitled to the family assets the same as our children , does anyone know if this is true

Alty
Jul 18, 2009, 11:08 PM
What does she mean by assets?

If the child is his then he needs to support it.

I'd get a paternity test done.

jenniepepsi
Jul 18, 2009, 11:11 PM
It may or may not be true.

First. You do not have to ejaculate to get some one pregnant.


Second, she needs to get a paternity test done in order to prove that he is the child's father.

If he is the child's father, its not CERTAIN that the child is entitled anymore than what court ordered child support is calculated for.

Id say your first step is to establish paternity of this child.

Its always sad when a child is born under these circumstances... its certainly not the child's fault this happened... and to be used as a pawn for financial gain as his mother is trying to do is just terrible.

Good luck hon.

Gemini54
Jul 19, 2009, 12:28 AM
Get a paternity test before any negotiations about support or assets are discussed.

If the child is his then it will be entitled to child support. Regarding the assets, you may have to get legal advice, but in Australia biological children are entitled to make a claim on a parent's will.

rosebud135
Jul 19, 2009, 12:29 AM
Get a dna test. If it is his kid then he might have to pay child support. If not then don't worry about the girl.