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FutureCSI
May 29, 2009, 10:14 AM
I am doing a research on this philosophical terms.

-How is a categorical imperactive different from a hypothetical imperactive?

-How do categorical imperactive get their authority?

-And what does Kant mean in saying that all rational beings are "legistators" of universal law?


Thank you all very much :p

TUT317
Jun 3, 2009, 08:50 PM
A hypothetical imperative is a directive to an end. For example. If you want good health then you should exercise. Such an action would seem prudent, but there are other ways to achieve good health.
A categorical imperative enjoins actions without qualification. It sets out a rule which,if followed, ensures a person is behaving in a moral fashion. Kant set out a number of categorical imperatives the most important being:

'Act only on that maxim whereby you can at the same time will that it should be an universal law'.

FutureCSI
Nov 18, 2010, 08:11 AM
Thank you.