FutureCSI
May 29, 2009, 10:14 AM
I am doing a research on this philosophical terms.
-How is a categorical imperactive different from a hypothetical imperactive?
-How do categorical imperactive get their authority?
-And what does Kant mean in saying that all rational beings are "legistators" of universal law?
Thank you all very much :p
-How is a categorical imperactive different from a hypothetical imperactive?
-How do categorical imperactive get their authority?
-And what does Kant mean in saying that all rational beings are "legistators" of universal law?
Thank you all very much :p