ineedadvicenow1
Apr 4, 2009, 06:42 AM
I was divorced in 2001 and the divorce decree states that my ex gets to claim our son on his taxes and that I have to sign form 8332 every year in order for him to do that. I heard that in 2008 there was a new law re: from 8332 and that if I don't sign the form that my ex can't claim him. I have the children most of the time (he sees them every other weekend). I have ben served papers because I am in contempt of court by not signing form 8332, but I thought the new law states that the from supercedes the old divorce decree. I go to court in less than a month. My question is: what does the new law re: form 8332 really mean and did I get myself in a heck of a lot of trouble? :confused:
Thanks!
ineedadvicenow1
Thanks!
ineedadvicenow1