kpole65
Apr 4, 2009, 12:47 AM
Landlord gave property back to lender before foreclosure, but there is no transfer of deed or quick claim deed posted,says we are to make payments to the lender, does this violate our contract/ lease or is the contract still binding?
excon
Apr 4, 2009, 06:27 AM
Hello k:
I read both your questions... I wouldn't have any idea whether your contract is still binding.. I don't even know if it EVER was, specially since the guy you bought the house from DIDN'T own it. You need a real estate attorney, and you need him RIGHT NOW.
excon