Dalto922
Mar 28, 2009, 08:48 AM
Here is a brief synopsis:
In March of 2008 my girlfriend was three quarters behind in her condo association dues (July 07, Oct 07, and Jan 08). She received a notice of lien on her property for a total of $3600 - the three quarters past due, three quarters in advance payments for 2008 they wanted (April 08, July 08, and October 08), and the lawyer fees. She called, and the lawyer's office told her that if she paid $2800 (the total minus the lawyer fees, check payable to the condo association), they would clear the lien. She paid the money, and received a satisfaction of lien from the lawyer which she registered with the county clerk.
When she went to pay her Jan 09 dues, the condo association said that they hadn't received a payment from her in almost a year (technically true, since she paid in advance last March). Neither the lawyer nor the association office has been very responsive to her follow ups since she faxed them the copies of the letters from last year. She did send in her Jan 09 dues in full.
Today she received a notice that ANOTHER lien had been filed on her property by the association! - The total was suspiciously for the $800 in lawyer fees from last March and one quarter of dues. She called the association office, who told her that the January payment she made went to the "past due amount of dues". We are trying to meet with the lawyer now because something isn't right to me.
These are my questions:
1.) It looks like the lawyer deducted his fees from the $2800 and she did not receive credit for the full amount of her advance payments, or the association paid the lawyer the money out of those funds. Can they do that?
2.) If the lien in 2008 was for $3600, and we have a document saying that lien is satisfied, then should we tell them to go fly a kite because regardless of what we paid, they said the lien was satisfied in full and have no claim to the money now?
3.) If the condo association was paid in full but not the lawyer, why didn't the lawyer bill her for the $800 all year? If the lawyer was paid in full , but not the association, why didn't they contact her when she used up the advance money?
4.) If we can prove the new lien is in error, can we do anything to remove it rather than just listing it as satisfied, which gives a certain amount of legitimacy to it?
Any advice would be helpful.
In March of 2008 my girlfriend was three quarters behind in her condo association dues (July 07, Oct 07, and Jan 08). She received a notice of lien on her property for a total of $3600 - the three quarters past due, three quarters in advance payments for 2008 they wanted (April 08, July 08, and October 08), and the lawyer fees. She called, and the lawyer's office told her that if she paid $2800 (the total minus the lawyer fees, check payable to the condo association), they would clear the lien. She paid the money, and received a satisfaction of lien from the lawyer which she registered with the county clerk.
When she went to pay her Jan 09 dues, the condo association said that they hadn't received a payment from her in almost a year (technically true, since she paid in advance last March). Neither the lawyer nor the association office has been very responsive to her follow ups since she faxed them the copies of the letters from last year. She did send in her Jan 09 dues in full.
Today she received a notice that ANOTHER lien had been filed on her property by the association! - The total was suspiciously for the $800 in lawyer fees from last March and one quarter of dues. She called the association office, who told her that the January payment she made went to the "past due amount of dues". We are trying to meet with the lawyer now because something isn't right to me.
These are my questions:
1.) It looks like the lawyer deducted his fees from the $2800 and she did not receive credit for the full amount of her advance payments, or the association paid the lawyer the money out of those funds. Can they do that?
2.) If the lien in 2008 was for $3600, and we have a document saying that lien is satisfied, then should we tell them to go fly a kite because regardless of what we paid, they said the lien was satisfied in full and have no claim to the money now?
3.) If the condo association was paid in full but not the lawyer, why didn't the lawyer bill her for the $800 all year? If the lawyer was paid in full , but not the association, why didn't they contact her when she used up the advance money?
4.) If we can prove the new lien is in error, can we do anything to remove it rather than just listing it as satisfied, which gives a certain amount of legitimacy to it?
Any advice would be helpful.